SulsiCewl wrote:
[....] my formula = PV(1.75%, 2.5, -1). How does microsoft come up with a present value of 2.454 for this problem. I am not able to reproduce the results using the following formula 1/(1+.0175)^1+ 1/(1+.0175)^2 +.5/(1+.0175)^2.5.
Okay. I think I see what you are asking: Why isn't the NPV of the cash flows equal to the PV function result?
In part, it is because you misrerpresent the cash flows and the discount factors, at least in terms of the PV function model.
The PV function assumes equal cash flows at
equal intervals. So if you assume there are 3 cash flows, their frequency must be 2.5/3, not 1, 1 and 0.5, and not 1, 1 and 1.
So ostensibly (but incorrectly), the NPV of a payment of -1 at 1.75% for each of 3 payments might be the negative of:
1/(1+1.75%)^(2.5/3) + 1/(1+1.75%)^(2.5*2/3) + 1/(1+1.75%)^2.5 = 2.91470192916266
But that still differs from PV(1.75%, 2.5, -1) = 2.42539998226368 . Why?
The fallacy is in dividing 2.5 into 3 cash flows, in the first place.
The fact is: in order to calculate NPV, we would need 2.5 equal cash flows, not 3. And that is inconsistent with the NPV model, which has a cardinal number of cash flows.
So the reason why the PV and NPV functions do not return the same amounts is because they have very different models.
It is analogous to comparing Excel XIRR for equal payments at the end of each month with Excel IRR. The two will never be the same because of different assumptions.